Which is it: "makes us righteous" or "declared us righteous"? Does God "make us righteous", which allows the thought that we are then able to be a party in the process of conversion? Or has God objectively, because of Christ's vicarious satisfaction, pardoned the sin of (or declared righteous) the whole world of sinners in His heart?
In the first column Dr. Kolb interpreted Luther's Latin words (WA 54:186.5-8, LW 34:337; StL14:447) as "God makes us righteous" but he translated the same Latin word "iustificat" as "justifies" or "justify", not "makes righteous", in his Book of Concord (2000), p. 89:48, 125:31, 127:45, 130:62, etc. (see here for iustificat in BoC). It is puzzling as to why Kolb would write the phrase "makes us righteous" in 2009 while he earlier in 2000 translated the same word as "justifies" or "justify". — The confusion of Dr. Kolb on "Justification" was not surprising to me given his uninterrupted actions of unionism. I am also not surprised that most LCMS theologians are also confused on the Lutheran Doctrine of Justification.
But I was surprised to discover the other book, one that has much to recommend it from a Lutheran standpoint, even with some notable caveats. Dr. Mueller directly refutes the translation of Dr. Kolb, and from a thoroughly Lutheran standpoint. (Mueller also teaches Universal, Objective Justification – UOJ).
So why make such a fuss over this seemingly minor, insignificant change of wording by Dr. Robert Kolb? It is because it is a matter of spiritual life and death. It touches the "Foundation of the Christian Faith", a subject for which Dr. Franz Pieper is the best teacher since C.F.W. Walther.
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
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